Pharmacology Mid-Term Examination
Pharmacology Mid-Term Examination — MBChB Year 1 Mid-Term Examination Paper Pharmacology Bachelor of Medicine & Bachelor of Surgery (MBChB) • Year 1 • Semester 1, 2026 General, Autonomic & Autacoid Pharmacology (PHA 121) | Chemotherapy of Infections & Malignancies (PHA 222) 2 HrsDuration 100Total Marks A · B · CSections General Principles PK/PD Autonomic NS ANS Autacoids Local Hormones Anti-Infectives Bacterial Antifungal & Antiviral Antiprotozoal & Anthelmintic Cancer Chemotherapy Instructions to Candidates Answer ALL questions in Section A (Objectives & Fill-ins). Answer any THREE questions from Section B. Answer any TWO questions from Section C. Write clearly and legibly. Generic drug names are preferred over brand names. Do not write anything in the margins. Section A 40 MARKS Part I — Objectives (20 Marks). Answer ALL questions. Choose the most appropriate answer. 1. The time required for the plasma concentration of a drug to fall by 50% is known as: A. BioavailabilityB. Volume of distribution C. Half-life (t½)D. Clearance Show Answer Answer: C. Half-life (t½) — Determines dosing interval; after ~4-5 half-lives a drug is considered eliminated. 2. A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a submaximal response even at full occupancy is called a: A. Full agonistB. Partial agonist C. AntagonistD. Inverse agonist Show Answer Answer: B. Partial agonist — Has affinity but lower intrinsic efficacy than a full agonist. 3. Atropine exerts its effect by acting as a: A. Muscarinic receptor agonistB. Muscarinic receptor antagonist C. Nicotinic receptor antagonistD. Cholinesterase inhibitor Show Answer Answer: B. Muscarinic receptor antagonist — Used for bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning, and preanesthetic drying of secretions. 4. Which receptor subtype mediates bronchodilation when stimulated by salbutamol? A. α1B. β1 C. β2D. M3 Show Answer Answer: C. β2 — β2-adrenoceptor stimulation relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, hence its use in asthma. 5. Which autacoid is responsible for the classic triple response (redness, wheal, flare) in skin injury? A. Prostaglandin E2B. Histamine C. SerotoninD. Bradykinin Show Answer Answer: B. Histamine — Released from mast cells; acts via H1 receptors on vasculature. 6. Penicillins exert their bactericidal effect primarily by: A. Inhibiting protein synthesis at the 30S ribosomeB. Inhibiting bacterial cell wall (peptidoglycan) synthesis C. Inhibiting DNA gyraseD. Disrupting folic acid synthesis Show Answer Answer: B. Inhibiting bacterial cell wall (peptidoglycan) synthesis — By binding penicillin-binding proteins (transpeptidases). 7. Which class of antibiotics is classically associated with tendon rupture and QT prolongation as adverse effects? A. MacrolidesB. Aminoglycosides C. FluoroquinolonesD. Tetracyclines Show Answer Answer: C. Fluoroquinolones — e.g. ciprofloxacin; also associated with cartilage damage in children. 8. Amphotericin B exerts its antifungal action by: A. Inhibiting ergosterol synthesisB. Binding ergosterol and forming membrane pores C. Inhibiting fungal DNA synthesisD. Inhibiting beta-glucan synthase Show Answer Answer: B. Binding ergosterol and forming membrane pores — Causes leakage of intracellular contents; nephrotoxicity is a key adverse effect. 9. The drug of choice for uncomplicated Plasmodium falciparum malaria in most endemic African settings is: A. ChloroquineB. Artemether-lumefantrine C. DoxycyclineD. Mefloquine alone Show Answer Answer: B. Artemether-lumefantrine — An artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT), the WHO-recommended first-line regimen. 10. Methotrexate exerts its anticancer effect by inhibiting: A. Topoisomerase IIB. Dihydrofolate reductase C. Ribonucleotide reductaseD. Microtubule assembly Show Answer Answer: B. Dihydrofolate reductase — Blocks folate-dependent synthesis of purines and thymidylate, halting DNA synthesis. 11. Which second messenger is generated when noradrenaline acts on α1-adrenoceptors? A. cAMPB. IP3/DAG C. cGMPD. Direct ion channel opening Show Answer Answer: B. IP3/DAG — α1 receptors are Gq-coupled, activating phospholipase C. 12. Organophosphate poisoning is treated with atropine and which other agent? A. NeostigmineB. Pralidoxime C. PhysostigmineD. Pyridostigmine Show Answer Answer: B. Pralidoxime — Reactivates acetylcholinesterase by removing the phosphate group, if given before “aging” occurs. 13. Which route of administration avoids first-pass hepatic metabolism? A. OralB. Sublingual C. Rectal (upper)D. All of the above Show Answer Answer: B. Sublingual — Drug is absorbed directly into systemic circulation, bypassing the portal system. 14. Aspirin’s antiplatelet effect is due to irreversible inhibition of: A. LipoxygenaseB. Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) C. Phospholipase A2D. Thromboxane synthase only Show Answer Answer: B. Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) — Reduces thromboxane A2 production in platelets for the lifespan of the platelet (~7-10 days). 15. Which anti-tuberculosis drug is most associated with peripheral neuropathy, prevented by co-administration of pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)? A. RifampicinB. Isoniazid C. EthambutolD. Pyrazinamide Show Answer Answer: B. Isoniazid — Depletes pyridoxine, causing peripheral neuropathy if unsupplemented. 16. Metronidazole is particularly effective against which class of organisms? A. Aerobic gram-positive cocciB. Anaerobic bacteria and protozoa C. Atypical bacteria (Mycoplasma)D. Fungi Show Answer Answer: B. Anaerobic bacteria and protozoa — Effective against organisms like Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichomonas, and anaerobes such as Bacteroides. 17. Acyclovir selectively targets virus-infected cells because it requires activation by: A. Host cell kinases onlyB. Viral thymidine kinase C. Viral proteaseD. Viral reverse transcriptase Show Answer Answer: B. Viral thymidine kinase — Phosphorylates acyclovir to its active form, giving it selectivity for HSV/VZV-infected cells. 18. Vincristine, a vinca alkaloid, exerts its anticancer effect by: A. Stabilizing microtubulesB. Inhibiting microtubule polymerization C. Alkylating DNAD. Intercalating DNA Show Answer Answer: B. Inhibiting microtubule polymerization — Arrests cell division in metaphase; notable adverse effect is peripheral neuropathy. 19. The “cheese reaction” (hypertensive crisis with tyramine-containing foods) is a classic risk with which drug class? A. Beta-blockersB. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) C. Calcium channel blockersD. ACE inhibitors Show Answer Answer: B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) — MAO inhibition prevents tyramine breakdown, causing excess norepinephrine release. 20. Albendazole and mebendazole act against helminths primarily by: A. Paralyzing the worm via GABA agonismB. Inhibiting microtubule formation by binding tubulin C. Increasing cell membrane permeability to calciumD. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase Show Answer Answer: B. Inhibiting microtubule formation by binding tubulin — Disrupts glucose uptake and energy metabolism in helminths, leading to their death. Part II — Fill in the Blanks (20 Marks). Answer ALL questions in this part. 21.The study of what the body does to a drug (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion) is called click to reveal. 22.The dose of a drug required to produce a therapeutic effect in 50% of










