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Pharmacology Mid-Term Examination — MBChB Year 1
Mid-Term Examination Paper

Pharmacology

Bachelor of Medicine & Bachelor of Surgery (MBChB) • Year 1 • Semester 1, 2026

General, Autonomic & Autacoid Pharmacology (PHA 121)  |  Chemotherapy of Infections & Malignancies (PHA 222)

2 HrsDuration
100Total Marks
A · B · CSections
General Principles PK/PD Autonomic NS ANS Autacoids Local Hormones Anti-Infectives Bacterial Antifungal & Antiviral Antiprotozoal & Anthelmintic Cancer Chemotherapy

Instructions to Candidates

  • Answer ALL questions in Section A (Objectives & Fill-ins).
  • Answer any THREE questions from Section B.
  • Answer any TWO questions from Section C.
  • Write clearly and legibly. Generic drug names are preferred over brand names.
  • Do not write anything in the margins.

Section A

40 MARKS

Part I — Objectives (20 Marks). Answer ALL questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

1. The time required for the plasma concentration of a drug to fall by 50% is known as:

A. BioavailabilityB. Volume of distribution C. Half-life (t½)D. Clearance
Answer: C. Half-life (t½) — Determines dosing interval; after ~4-5 half-lives a drug is considered eliminated.

2. A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a submaximal response even at full occupancy is called a:

A. Full agonistB. Partial agonist C. AntagonistD. Inverse agonist
Answer: B. Partial agonist — Has affinity but lower intrinsic efficacy than a full agonist.

3. Atropine exerts its effect by acting as a:

A. Muscarinic receptor agonistB. Muscarinic receptor antagonist C. Nicotinic receptor antagonistD. Cholinesterase inhibitor
Answer: B. Muscarinic receptor antagonist — Used for bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning, and preanesthetic drying of secretions.

4. Which receptor subtype mediates bronchodilation when stimulated by salbutamol?

A. α1B. β1 C. β2D. M3
Answer: C. β2 — β2-adrenoceptor stimulation relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, hence its use in asthma.

5. Which autacoid is responsible for the classic triple response (redness, wheal, flare) in skin injury?

A. Prostaglandin E2B. Histamine C. SerotoninD. Bradykinin
Answer: B. Histamine — Released from mast cells; acts via H1 receptors on vasculature.

6. Penicillins exert their bactericidal effect primarily by:

A. Inhibiting protein synthesis at the 30S ribosomeB. Inhibiting bacterial cell wall (peptidoglycan) synthesis C. Inhibiting DNA gyraseD. Disrupting folic acid synthesis
Answer: B. Inhibiting bacterial cell wall (peptidoglycan) synthesis — By binding penicillin-binding proteins (transpeptidases).

7. Which class of antibiotics is classically associated with tendon rupture and QT prolongation as adverse effects?

A. MacrolidesB. Aminoglycosides C. FluoroquinolonesD. Tetracyclines
Answer: C. Fluoroquinolones — e.g. ciprofloxacin; also associated with cartilage damage in children.

8. Amphotericin B exerts its antifungal action by:

A. Inhibiting ergosterol synthesisB. Binding ergosterol and forming membrane pores C. Inhibiting fungal DNA synthesisD. Inhibiting beta-glucan synthase
Answer: B. Binding ergosterol and forming membrane pores — Causes leakage of intracellular contents; nephrotoxicity is a key adverse effect.

9. The drug of choice for uncomplicated Plasmodium falciparum malaria in most endemic African settings is:

A. ChloroquineB. Artemether-lumefantrine C. DoxycyclineD. Mefloquine alone
Answer: B. Artemether-lumefantrine — An artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT), the WHO-recommended first-line regimen.

10. Methotrexate exerts its anticancer effect by inhibiting:

A. Topoisomerase IIB. Dihydrofolate reductase C. Ribonucleotide reductaseD. Microtubule assembly
Answer: B. Dihydrofolate reductase — Blocks folate-dependent synthesis of purines and thymidylate, halting DNA synthesis.

11. Which second messenger is generated when noradrenaline acts on α1-adrenoceptors?

A. cAMPB. IP3/DAG C. cGMPD. Direct ion channel opening
Answer: B. IP3/DAG — α1 receptors are Gq-coupled, activating phospholipase C.

12. Organophosphate poisoning is treated with atropine and which other agent?

A. NeostigmineB. Pralidoxime C. PhysostigmineD. Pyridostigmine
Answer: B. Pralidoxime — Reactivates acetylcholinesterase by removing the phosphate group, if given before "aging" occurs.

13. Which route of administration avoids first-pass hepatic metabolism?

A. OralB. Sublingual C. Rectal (upper)D. All of the above
Answer: B. Sublingual — Drug is absorbed directly into systemic circulation, bypassing the portal system.

14. Aspirin's antiplatelet effect is due to irreversible inhibition of:

A. LipoxygenaseB. Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) C. Phospholipase A2D. Thromboxane synthase only
Answer: B. Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) — Reduces thromboxane A2 production in platelets for the lifespan of the platelet (~7-10 days).

15. Which anti-tuberculosis drug is most associated with peripheral neuropathy, prevented by co-administration of pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)?

A. RifampicinB. Isoniazid C. EthambutolD. Pyrazinamide
Answer: B. Isoniazid — Depletes pyridoxine, causing peripheral neuropathy if unsupplemented.

16. Metronidazole is particularly effective against which class of organisms?

A. Aerobic gram-positive cocciB. Anaerobic bacteria and protozoa C. Atypical bacteria (Mycoplasma)D. Fungi
Answer: B. Anaerobic bacteria and protozoa — Effective against organisms like Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichomonas, and anaerobes such as Bacteroides.

17. Acyclovir selectively targets virus-infected cells because it requires activation by:

A. Host cell kinases onlyB. Viral thymidine kinase C. Viral proteaseD. Viral reverse transcriptase
Answer: B. Viral thymidine kinase — Phosphorylates acyclovir to its active form, giving it selectivity for HSV/VZV-infected cells.

18. Vincristine, a vinca alkaloid, exerts its anticancer effect by:

A. Stabilizing microtubulesB. Inhibiting microtubule polymerization C. Alkylating DNAD. Intercalating DNA
Answer: B. Inhibiting microtubule polymerization — Arrests cell division in metaphase; notable adverse effect is peripheral neuropathy.

19. The "cheese reaction" (hypertensive crisis with tyramine-containing foods) is a classic risk with which drug class?

A. Beta-blockersB. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) C. Calcium channel blockersD. ACE inhibitors
Answer: B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) — MAO inhibition prevents tyramine breakdown, causing excess norepinephrine release.

20. Albendazole and mebendazole act against helminths primarily by:

A. Paralyzing the worm via GABA agonismB. Inhibiting microtubule formation by binding tubulin C. Increasing cell membrane permeability to calciumD. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase
Answer: B. Inhibiting microtubule formation by binding tubulin — Disrupts glucose uptake and energy metabolism in helminths, leading to their death.

Part II — Fill in the Blanks (20 Marks). Answer ALL questions in this part.

21.The study of what the body does to a drug (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion) is called click to reveal.
22.The dose of a drug required to produce a therapeutic effect in 50% of a population is denoted click to reveal.
23.The primary neurotransmitter released at all autonomic ganglia (both sympathetic and parasympathetic) is click to reveal.
24.Phenoxybenzamine is an example of an irreversible click to reveal, historically used in pheochromocytoma.
25.The autacoid derived from arachidonic acid via the lipoxygenase pathway that mediates bronchoconstriction in asthma is click to reveal.
26.Vancomycin acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis by binding to the click to reveal of peptidoglycan precursors.
27.The first-line drug for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is click to reveal.
28.Fluconazole belongs to the click to reveal class of antifungals and works by inhibiting ergosterol synthesis.
29.Doxorubicin, an anthracycline, is notorious for causing dose-dependent click to reveal.
30.Praziquantel is the drug of choice for treating infections caused by click to reveal.

Section B

30 MARKS

Answer any THREE questions from this section.

  1. Describe the four phases of pharmacokinetics (ADME) and briefly explain one clinically relevant factor that can alter each phase.
  2. Compare and contrast the actions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems on the heart, eye, and gastrointestinal tract.
  3. Discuss the mechanism of action, two clinical uses, and two adverse effects of histamine H1 receptor antagonists.
  4. Outline the mechanism of resistance development in bacteria and give three examples of resistance mechanisms with a relevant drug class for each.
  5. Describe the mechanism of action, spectrum of activity, and two major adverse effects of aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin).

Section C

30 MARKS

Answer any TWO questions from this section.

  1. Discuss the classification of anticancer drugs by mechanism of action (alkylating agents, antimetabolites, mitotic inhibitors, antibiotics, hormonal agents), giving one example and one major adverse effect for each class.
  2. Describe the pharmacological management of uncomplicated and severe (complicated) Plasmodium falciparum malaria, including drug choice, mechanism of action, and key adverse effects.
  3. Discuss the pharmacotherapy of Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infection. Describe the major classes of antiretroviral drugs, their mechanisms of action, and the rationale for combination (HAART) therapy.
— END OF EXAMINATION PAPER —
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